I agree with your statement, although it could be hard to pin down the difference timing of at what stage between 1 drink, or 1 beer, or 1 glass of wine, and as many as might follow that follow, “intoxicated” to the point of being unable to validly consent kicks in. (Then, there could be also the issue of alcohol and other drugs in combination, but would be an even muddier quagmire.) I presume that many women would be insulted if you were to suggest that after one drink they are too intoxicated to consent. But the reason that I wrote was because the author of that article, and raised that issue herself as to a point before she had anything to drink at all, so I am really asking of women, not of men, if and when they think that might apply. At least 1 women things it could.